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CompTIA Cybersecurity Analyst (CySA+) Certification Exam Sample Questions (Q94-Q99):

NEW QUESTION # 94
An analyst is reviewing a vulnerability report for a server environment with the following entries:

Which of the following systems should be prioritized for patching first?

A. 54.73.225.17
B. 54.74.110.228
C. 10.101.27.98
D. 54.74.110.26

Answer: B

Explanation:
The system that should be prioritized for patching first is 54.74.110.228, as it has the highest number and severity of vulnerabilities among the four systems listed in the vulnerability report. According to the report, this system has 12 vulnerabilities, with 8 critical, 3 high, and 1 medium severity ratings. The critical vulnerabilities include CVE-2019-0708 (BlueKeep), CVE-2019-1182 (DejaBlue), CVE-2017-0144 (EternalBlue), and CVE-2017-0145 (EternalRomance), which are all remote code execution vulnerabilities that can allow an attacker to compromise the system without any user interaction or authentication. These vulnerabilities pose a high risk to the system and should be patched as soon as possible.

NEW QUESTION # 95
As a proactive threat-hunting technique, hunters must develop situational cases based on likely attack scenarios derived from the available threat intelligence information. After forming the basis of the scenario, which of the following may the threat hunter construct to establish a framework for threat assessment?

A. Attack profile
B. Hypothesis
C. Critical asset list
D. Threat vector

Answer: B

Explanation:
A hypothesis is a statement that can be tested by threat hunters to establish a framework for threat assessment. A hypothesis is based on situational awareness and threat intelligence information, and describes a possible attack scenario that may affect the organization. A hypothesis can help to guide threat hunters in their investigation by providing a clear and specific question to answer, such as "Is there any evidence of lateral movement within our network?" or "Are there any signs of data exfiltration from our servers?".

NEW QUESTION # 96
An incident response team is working with law enforcement to investigate an active web server compromise.
The decision has been made to keep the server running and to implement compensating controls for a period of time. The web service must be accessible from the internet via the reverse proxy and must connect to a database server. Which of the following compensating controls will help contain the adversary while meeting the other requirements? (Select two).

A. Comment out the HTTP account in the / etc/passwd file of the web server
B. Deploy EDR on the web server and the database server to reduce the adversaries capabilities.
C. Move the database from the database server to the web server.
D. Drop the tables on the database server to prevent data exfiltration.
E. use micro segmentation to restrict connectivity to/from the web and database servers.
F. Stop the httpd service on the web server so that the adversary can not use web exploits

Answer: B,E

Explanation:
Explanation
Deploying EDR on the web server and the database server to reduce the adversaries capabilities and using micro segmentation to restrict connectivity to/from the web and database servers are two compensating controls that will help contain the adversary while meeting the other requirements. A compensating control is a security measure that is implemented to mitigate the risk of a vulnerability or an attack when the primary control is not feasible or effective. EDR stands for Endpoint Detection and Response, which is a tool that monitors endpoints for malicious activity and provides automated or manual response capabilities. EDR can help contain the adversary by detecting and blocking their actions, such as data exfiltration, lateral movement, privilege escalation, or command execution. Micro segmentation is a technique that divides a network into smaller segments based on policies and rules, and applies granular access controls to each segment. Micro segmentation can help contain the adversary by isolating the web and database servers from other parts of the network, and limiting the traffic that can flow between them. Official References:
https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/comptia-cysa-cs0-002-exam-objectives
https://www.comptia.org/certifications/cybersecurity-analyst
https://www.comptia.org/blog/the-new-comptia-cybersecurity-analyst-your-questions-answered

NEW QUESTION # 97
A security analyst received an alert regarding multiple successful MFA log-ins for a particular user When reviewing the authentication logs the analyst sees the following:

Which of the following are most likely occurring, based on the MFA logs? (Select two).

A. Subscriber identity module swapping
B. impossible geo-velocity
C. Rogue access point
D. Push phishing
E. Dictionary attack
F. Password spray

Answer: B,D

Explanation:
C) Impossible geo-velocity: This is an event where a single user's account is accessed from different geographical locations within a timeframe that is impossible for normal human travel. In the log, we can see that the user "jdoe" is accessing from the United States and then within a few minutes from Russia, which is practically impossible to achieve without the use of some form of automated system or if the account credentials are being used by different individuals in different locations.
B) Push phishing: This could also be an indication of push phishing, where the user is tricked into approving a multi-factor authentication request that they did not initiate. This is less clear from the logs directly, but it could be inferred if the user is receiving MFA requests that they are not initiating and are being approved without their genuine desire to access the resources.

NEW QUESTION # 98
A security analyst is working on a server patch management policy that will allow the infrastructure team to be informed more quickly about new patches. Which of the following would most likely be required by the infrastructure team so that vulnerabilities can be remediated quickly? (Choose two.)

A. POC availabilty
B. IoCs
C. Missing KPI
D. npm identifier
E. CVE details
F. Hostname

Answer: B,E

Explanation:
CVE details and IoCs are information that would most likely be required by the infrastructure team so that vulnerabilities can be remediated quickly. CVE details provide the description, severity, impact, and solution of the vulnerabilities that affect the servers. IoCs are indicators of compromise that help identify and respond to potential threats or attacks on the servers.

NEW QUESTION # 99
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New CompTIA CS0-003 Test Cram, CS0-003 Test Answers

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CompTIA Cybersecurity Analyst (CySA+) Certification Exam Sample Questions (Q94-Q99):

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